1. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named
A. Fermi
B. angstrom
C. newton
D. tesla
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Fermi - A unit of length equal to 10-15
meter (one femtometer), used in nuclear physics. It is similar to the diameter of a proton.
2. Pa(Pascal) is the unit for
A. thrust
B. pressure
C. frequency
D. conductivity
Answer:
Answer:
Option
B
3. Metals are good conductors of electricity because
A. they contain free electrons
B. the atoms are lightly packed
C. they have high melting point
D. All of the above
Answer:
A
4. Pick out the scalar quantity
A. force
B. pressure
C. velocity
D. acceleration
Answer:
B
5. Rectifiers are used to convert
A. Direct current to Alternating current
B. Alternating current to Direct current
C. high voltage to low voltage
D. low voltage to high voltage
Answer:
A:
6. out of the following, which is not emitted by radioactive substance?
A. Electrons
B. Electromagnetic radiations
C. Alpha particles
D. Neutrons
Answer:
Answer:
Option
D
7. Magnetism at the centre of a bar magnet is
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. minimum or maximum
Answer:
Answer:
Option
C
8. Lux is the SI unit of
A. intensity of illumination
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous flux
D. luminous intensity
Answer:
Answer:
Option
A
Explanation:
# The SI unit of intensity of illumination (illuminance) is the lux. An illuminance of 1.0 lux is produced by 1.0 lumen of light shining on an area of 1.0 m^2.
9. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called
A. audio sounds
B. infrasonic
C. ultrasonic
D. supersonics
Answer:
Answer:
Option
B
10. Sound travels at the fastest speed in
A. steel
B. water
C. air
D. vacuum
Answer:
Answer:
Option
A
11. Mica is used in electrical appliances such as electric iron because mica is
A. a good conductor of heat but a bad conductor of electricity
B. a bad conductor of heat but a good conductor of electricity
C. a good conductor of heat as well as electricity
D. a bad conductor of heat as well as electricity
Answer:
Answer:
Option
A
12. Natural radioactivity was discovered by
A. Marie Curie
B. Ernest Rutherfor
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Enrico Fermi
Answer:
Answer:
Option
C
13. Identify the vector quantity from the following
A. Heat
B. Angular momentum
C. Time
D. Work
Answer:
Answer:
Option
B
14. Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?
A. Scattering
B. Diffraction
C. Interference
D. Polarization
Answer:
Answer:
Option
A
15. Isotopes of an element contain
A. the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
B. the same number of neutrons but different number of protons
C. equal number of protons and electrons
D. equal number of nucleons
Answer:
Answer:
Option
A
16. Mach number is used in connection with the speed of
A. sound
B. aircraft
C. spacecraft
D. ships
Answer:
Answer:
Option
B
17. Supersonic plane fly with the speed
A. less than the speed of sound
B. of sound
C. greater than the speed of sound
D. of light
Answer:
Answer:
Option
C
18. Light from the star, Alpha Centauri, which is nearest to the earth after the sun, reaches the earth in
A. 4.2 seconds
B. 42 seconds
C. 4.2 years
D. 42 years
Answer:
Answer:
Option
C
19. Optical fibre works on the
A. principle of refraction
B. total internal reflection
C. scattering
D. interference
Answer:
Answer:
Option
B
20. Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric fluid rather than water because
A. specific heat of mercury is less than water
B. specific heat of mercury is more than water
C. mercury has greater visibility than water
D. density of mercury is more than the water
Answer:
Answer:
Option
C
21.In 1398, when Timur invaded India, the ruler of Delhi Sultanate was:
[A] Mahmud Shah Tughluq
[B] Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji
[C] Aram Shah
[D] Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
[A] Mahmud Shah Tughluq
[B] Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji
[C] Aram Shah
[D] Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
22.“Silver Tanka” and “Copper Jital” coins were introduced by:
[A] Iltutmish
[B] Abu Bakr Shah
[C] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
[D] Sikander Lodi
[A] Iltutmish
[B] Abu Bakr Shah
[C] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
[D] Sikander Lodi
23.Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Lingayatism?
[A] It was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava
[A] It was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava
[B] It is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India
[C] Lingayat thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras
[D] Contemporary Lingayatism is influential in North India, especially in the state of Jammu & Kashmir
24.In 1293 A.D., Marco Polo, an Italian traveller, visited which Indian Kingdom?
[A] Kakatiya
[B] Satavahana
[C] Pandyan
[D] Chera
[B] Satavahana
[C] Pandyan
[D] Chera
25.The famous Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai was built during which dynasty?
[A] Pandyas
[B] Chola
[C] Chera
[D] Pallava
[B] Chola
[C] Chera
[D] Pallava
26.Which ruler sent two of his brothers Ulugh Khan and Nusrat Khan to invadeGujarat?
[A] Alauddin Khilji
[B] Sikandar Lodi
[C] Muhammad Shah
[D] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
[B] Sikandar Lodi
[C] Muhammad Shah
[D] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
27.Who among the following introduced the Zabti system and Dahshala system?
[A] Raja Todar Mal
[B] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
[C] Raja Man Singh I
[D] Ibrahim Lodi
[B] Firuz Shah Tughlaq
[C] Raja Man Singh I
[D] Ibrahim Lodi
28.Who among the following is associated with translation of Rajatarangini in Persian?
[A] Dara Shikoh
[B] Zain-ul-Abidin
[C] Abdul Razzaq Jilani
[D] Bande Nawaz
[B] Zain-ul-Abidin
[C] Abdul Razzaq Jilani
[D] Bande Nawaz
29.Which Mughal Ruler had higher number of Hindus as Mansabdars than Muslims under his administration?
[A] Akbar
[B] Aurangzeb
[C] Jahangir
[D] Shah Jahan
[B] Aurangzeb
[C] Jahangir
[D] Shah Jahan
30.Ruqaiya Sultan Begum was the wife of which Mughal Ruler?
[A] Humayun
[B] Jahangir
[C] Akbar
[D] Shah Jahan
[B] Jahangir
[C] Akbar
[D] Shah Jahan
## Environment Science ##
1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
(a) Biosphere — Eduard Suess
(b) Ecosystem — A.P. de Candolle
(c) Ecology — A.G. Tansley
(d) Biodiversity — Reiter
2. Which of the following groups of gases contribute to the ‘Green House Effect’?
(a) Ammonia and Ozone
(b) Carbon mono-oxide and Sulphur di-oxide
(c) Carbon tetrafluoride and Nitrous oxide
(d) Carbon dioxide and Methane
3. Which one of the following is the correct
definition of “ Agenda 21” ?
(a) It is an action plan of U.N.O for protecting
human rights.
(b) It is a book of 21 chapters on nuclear
disarmament.
(c) It is an action plan for the sustainable
development.
(d) It is an agenda for the election of the
president in the next meeting of SAARC.
4. Environmental degradation means
(a) Overall lowering of environmental qualities.
(b) Adverse change brought in by human
activities.
(c) Ecological imbalance
(d) All the above
5. Which of the following countries suffer from the
acid rains?
1. Canada 2. France
3. Norway 4. Germany
Select the correct answers from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
6. Which of the following statements about Radioactive pollution are correct?
1. It causes genetic changes in the animals.
2. It causes disbalance among different
minerals in the soil.
3. It hinders blood circulation.
4. It causes cancers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
7. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Natural vegetation is the true
index of climate.
Reason (R): Water loving plants are found in
moist climate
In the context of the above statements, which one
of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
8. Which of the following conditions indicate the impact of global warming?
1. Melting of glaciers
2. Lowering down of sea level
3. Changes in weather conditions
4. Rise in global temperature
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Forests are a renewable resource.
Reason (R): They enhance the quality of
environment.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
of the following?
(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling
(b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants.
(c) They maintain the rivers and control floods.
(d) All the above
11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Kyoto Protocol — Carbon Trading
(b) Environmental — Leopold Matrix
impact assessment
(c) The year without — 1816
summer
(d) Milankovich — On the origin of
Theory Species
12. Which of the following statements are true about ecosystem? Select the correct answer from the
codes:
1. Ecosystem comprises both biotic and abiotic
components.
2. Solar radiation is the main driving force of
the ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem is a closed system.
4. Ecosystem does not have its own
productivity
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
13. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Plants are called primary producers.
Reason (R): Plants produce their food themselves
through the process of photosynthesis.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) Ecosystem’s structure, species composition
and functioning change seasonally between
years.
(b) Nature has spent millions of years to refine a
stable ecosystem.
(c) Ecosystem functions mainly through the
input of solar energy
(d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration
decreases with higher trophic levels.
15. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Conservation is a basic element
of environmental planning.
Reason (R): Conservation and development are
complementary to each other.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Which one of the following does not promote
stability of the ecosystem?
(a) Balancing between production and
consumption of each element in the
ecosystem.
(b) Balance between input and output of energy.
(c) Normal functioning of different biochemical
cycles.
(d) Increase of human population.
17. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases
from the equator towards the poles.
Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from
the equator towards the poles.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
18. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The relative loss of energy due to respiration
is lower from higher trophic levels.
(b) Species at higher trophic levels appear to be
less efficient in using their available food
supply.
(c) Higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete
than the lower ones.
(d) Food chains tend to be reasonably long.
19. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Organic farming reduces the
emission of greenhouse gases.
Reason (R): Organic forming utilise alternate
practices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
20. How does National Biodiversity Authority
(NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
directly monitors and supervises the
scientific research on genetic modification
of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights
related to genetic/biological resources can
not be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
22. With reference to the wetland of India, consider
the following statements:
1. The country’s total geographical area under
the category of wetlands is recorded more in
Gujarat as compared to other states.
2. In India, the total geographical area of
coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland
wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Which of the following can be threats to the
biodiversity of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
is normally greater in the lower altitudes as
compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. The Red Data Books published by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) contains lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in
the bio-diversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
26. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence
in the following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(National Park) (Location)
A. Gir 1. Assam
B. Sundarban 2. Gujarat
C. Betla 3. West Bengal
D. Kaziranga 4. Jharkhand
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Biosphere sites) (Year of setting-up)
A. Nilgiri 1. 2000
B. Nanda Devi 2. 1989
C. Sundarban 3. 1988
D. Kanchanjunga 4. 1986
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
29. Which of the following regions of India have
been designated as biodiversity hotspots?
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
1. Eastern Himalaya 2. Eastern Ghat
3. Western Ghat 4. Western Himalaya
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Biosphere Reserve) (State)
A. Dehang-Debang 1. Odisha
B. Manas 2. Meghalaya
C. Nokrek 3. Assam
D. Similipal 4. Arunachal Pradesh
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
31. Arrange the following states of India in descending
order of their mangrove cover and select the correct
answers from the codes given below:
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat
3. Odisha 4. West Bengal
Codes:
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Biodiversity 1. G. Tansley
B. Wildlife 2. E.O. Wilson
C. Ecosystem 3. E. Haeckel
D. Ecology 4. W.T. Hornaday
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
33. Consider the following statements:
1. Dachigam National Park is in Jammu and
Kashmir.
2. Loktak lake is known as floating national
park.
3. Loktak lake is located in Assam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Sanctuaries) (State)
A. Namdapha 1. Karnataka
B. Periyar 2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Bandipur 3. Manipur
D. Lamjao 4. Kerala
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1
35. Consider the following kinds of organisms and
identify the pollinating agent/agents.
(a) Bat and Bee but not bird
(c) Bee, bat and birds
(c) Hummingbird but not bee
(d) Wind, bee, bat, birds.
36. Consider the following statements regarding the
Millennium Assessment (MA) report 2005 and
choose the correct ones:
1. MA defines Ecosystem services as benefits
people obtain from ecosystems.
2. It includes supporting services and
provisioning services only.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Which of the following are the incorrect
statements about 'Keystone species'.
1. Keystone species are the small-sized plants
and organisms which have large effect on
the environment.
2. Keystone species play critical role in
maintaining the structure of an ecological
community.
3. Keystone species do not generally affect
other organisms.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
38. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Many mangrove plants possess
high levels of organic solutes.
Reason (R): This is an adaptation to survive and
grow in salty waters. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true R is correct explanation
of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
39. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Amensalism is a negative
interaction between two living individuals.
Reason (R): In amensalism, allochemicals are
secreted by one individual.
Select the correct code:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, R is false.
(d) A is false, R is true.
40. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Use of weedicides affect photo-
synthetic ability of plants.
Reason (R): Weedicides are metabolic inhibitors.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, R is false.
(d) A is false, R is true.
41. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct ones:
1. A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity
has been launched on 29 January, 2014
which is an output of Biofresh.
2. This will help in managing and protecting
the freshwater in future.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct ones.
1. The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation
(GSF) certification has been awarded to the
Kolkata Metro, on 2 February, 2014.
2. This certification is given for using the
energy efficiently.
3. Kolkata Metro has become the first ever
railway system in the world with GSF
certification standard.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
43. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct ones.
1. The International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN) is the world's oldest and
largest global environmental organization.
2. IUCN was founded in 1948, its Green
data book does conservation planning,
monitoring to protect endangered species.
3. On 30 January, 2014, IUCN announced that
it is celebrating 50 years of the IUCN Red
List of threatened species.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct
44. Consider the following statements and choose the
wrong ones.
1. The World's largest archipelago, Indonesia
is prone to seismic activities and dangers
associated with it.
2. Indonesia is located on the so-called Pacific
"Ring of Fire", which is an arc of volcanoes
and fault lines.
3. An earthquake of magnitude 7.1 rocked
parts of Indonesia's main Java Island on 25
January, 2014.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
45. As per National Aeronautics and Space Adminis-
tration (NASA) research scientists found that
concentrations of mercury near the ground level
had increased in the Arctic Sea by mercury-
pumping reaction which takes place because -
1. of open water in a lead is much warmer than
the air above it.
2. of the temperature difference, the air above
the lead churns like the air above a boiling
pot.
3. the mixing is so strong that it actually pulls
down mercury from a higher layer of the
atmosphere to near the surface.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
46. Biodiesel researchers have produced hydrocarbons
in bacterium—
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Vibrio cholerae
(d) Enteritis salmonella
47. A new nuclear waste disposal strategy announced
by United States include-
1. a “pilot interim store” will become
operational in 2021
2. a larger “full-scale interim store” will open
be open by 2025
3. an underground disposal facility to be
established by 2048 to permanently dispose
of the material.
4. a new organisation will be established
to manage the siting, development and
operation of the future waste stores.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
48. Consider the following statements
1. The Pacific salmon fish uses the Earth's
magnetic field to find their way
2. Machli, Queen Mother of tiger dynasty was
found in the Ranthambhore National Park,
India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
49. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. A new study has found that changes in solar
activity contributed no more than 10 per
cent to global warming in the 20th century
published in the journal Environmental
Research Letters.
2. It has been proposed that cosmic rays may
have a role in cooling the earth by encouraging
clouds to form, which subsequently reflect
the sun’s rays back into space.
3. Researchers found high correlation between
cosmic rays and global temperatures
occurring every 22 years.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
50. The International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) red list version 2013 of the
birds indicates 15 species of birds from India as
critically endangered. The reason for the decline
in the number of these birds are:
1. Loss, modification, fragmentation and
degradation of habitat
2. Environmental contaminants
3. Poaching
4. Use changes mainly conversion of large
areas to intensive crop cultivation
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
51. The International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) on 30 January 2014 completed
its 50 years of the IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species in guiding conservation action and policy
decisions. The IUCN:
1. acts as a powerful tool to inform and catalyse
action for biodiversity conservation and
policy change for things that are critical to
protect the natural resources that are needed
by us to survive.
2. provides the information on population size
as well as trends depending upon the range
and habitat needs of species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
52. The steps taken by the Government of India for
conversion of endangered species are
1. The Central Government has enacted
the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 for
protection of wildlife including birds.
2. Wetland (Conservation and Management)
Rules 2010 have been framed for protection
of wetlands, in the States, which are habitats
of birds.
3. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been
established for control of illegal trade in
wildlife, including endangered species of
birds and their parts and products.
4. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic
Eco-System also provides assistance to the
States for management of wetlands including
Ramsar sites in the country.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
53. The Delhi Metro is the first ever railway system
in the world to be awarded with the prestigious
Gold Standard Foundation (GSF) certification
standard for
(a) providing security to the people
(b) using the energy efficiently
(c) carrying largest number of passengers
(d) All of the above
54. The three species of vultures that are critically
endangered that have declined by more than 97
percent since 1990s are:
1. Egyptian vulture (Neophron percnopterus)
2. Oriental white-backed (Gyps bengalensis)
3. Long-billed (Gyps indicus)
4. Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
55. Consider the following statements
1. Tree Foundation, an NGO engaged in
conservation of the sea turtle found more
than 1000 dead Olive Ridley Turtles in the
shores of Nagapattinam.
2. The Olive Ridley turtles find the coastline of
Nagapattinam as a favourable nesting habitat
and that’s why they reach to the shore from
December to March every year.
3. The Olive Ridley looks very similar to the
Kemp's Riddle, but has a deeper body and
slightly up-turned edges to its carapace
(shell).
4. Olive Ridley weighs around 45 kilograms
and are 70cm in size and this makes them
the smallest of the sea turtles along with
Kemp riddles.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
56. Which of the following lake has been named
Destination Flyways by the United Nations
World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) on 21
January 2014?
(a) Chilika lagoon in Odisha
(b) Dal Lake in Kashmir valley
(c) Loktak Lake in Manipur
(d) Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. First Climate Change theatre in India
(second theatre in the world) was opened at
Pusa, New Delhi in January 2014.
2. The Inter-governmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) UN report on 17 January
2014 reported that during 2000 to 2010,
the CO2 has grown by 2.2 percent per year
and this rise is almost twice higher from the
growth of the period of 1970 to 2000.
Answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of these
58. G.B. Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment
and Development (GBPIHED) released the
Report titled Estimation of retreat of Gangotri
glacier on 7 January 2014. The Report includes-
1. Gangotri glacier is retreating in the
Himalayas and its volume and size are
shrinking between Gaumukh and Bhojbasa.
2. There is some disintegration in the upper
regions of the Gangotri glaciers due to
tectonic activities.
3. Retreat of Gangotri glaciers in this decade
was higher than in the previous decade due
to global warming.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
59. In December 2013, China built a new research
station in Antarctica called
(a) Taishan (b) Great Wall
(c) Zhongshan (d) Kunlun
60. Which of the following are the new species
of freshwater catfish discovered in Idukki and
Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala in November
2013?
1. Horabagrus melanosoma
2. Mystus heoki
3. Mystus indicus
4. Mystus miami
Select the answers from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
61. The Ministry of Environment and Forest declared
India's first marine eco-sensitive zone in –
(a) Gulf of Kutch (b) Palk Strait
(c) Gulf of Khambat (d) Gulf of Mannar
62. Which of the following has been cited as a cause
for the deaths of the Penguin chicks from the
world’s largest colony of Magellanic Penguins
(a) Lack of food (b) Warm Ocean Currents
(c) Climate Change (d) All of the above
63. Scientists from the University of Technology,
Sydney (UTS) explained that seagrass can play
a crucial role in fighting against the climate
change.Which of the following is/ are correct
about seagrass?
1. Seagrass helps by capturing and storing the
carbon by the process of photosynthesis.
2. Seagrass also traps the particles in the water
column.
3. The seagrass plant is 35 times better in
locking the carbon than the rainforests.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze,
quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings.
Because of the dung beetles activities, breeding
habitats for disease-carrying flies are reduced and
the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished.
The relationship between the dung beetles and
the disease-carrying flies is a type of :
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) intraspecific competition
(d) interspecific competition
65. Discussing the consequences of global climate
change at a conference, representatives of a
developing nation suggest that those nations that
contribute the most greenhouse gases (GHGs)
to the atmosphere should contribute the most
to paying for adaptive responses worldwide.
Further, this representative pointed out that her
poor country contributes less than 1% of the
annual GHGs and has less than 0.1% of the
world’s wealth. This representative’s appeal
represents:
(a) the precautionary principle
(b) the polluter pays and equity principles
(c) an argument for mitigation instead of
adaptation.
(d) stages 2 and 3 of the climate change skeptics
responses
66. Flea beetles alone are unlikely to eliminate all of
the leafy spurge in a region. Instead, the number
of leafy spurge plants and the number of flea
beetles in a particular community may stabilize.
At this point, the leafy spurge and flea beetle
populations:
(a) have exhibited exponential growth followed
by a crash
(b) have experienced constant growth
(c) are still experiencing exponential growth
(d) are experiencing environmental resistance
67. Eutrophication in the Chesapeake Bay along the
eastern edge of Maryland has resulted in low
oxygen levels in the water and alternation of food
webs. The cause of this eutrophication appears to
be pollution that contains high levels of :
(a) nitrogen and carbon
(b) nitrogen and phosphorus
(c) carbon and phosphorus
(d) carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus
68. In case of a parasitic food chain, the shape of the
pyramid of number is always:
(a) Upright (b) Linear
(c) Inverted (d) Not certain
69. In a forest, deer, raccoons, squirrels, and other
animals eat and find shelter. A detritus food web
occurs as their wastes accumulate on the forest
floor. In this detritus web:
(a) deer and raccoons function as the producers
(b) fungi and earthworms function as producers
(c) decomposers function as consumers
(d) the deer and raccoons represent decomposers
70. In a rural hilly district in Himachal Pradesh, a
land developer uses bulldozers to clear all but the
largest trees and cleans up a nearby stream, lining
the bottom of the stream with pretty rocks and
steeping-stones. Planting lawn grasses around
the base of the trees, the owner wants to create
a pretty park-like setting around his home. We
expect that in this cleared yard, there will be:
(a) more species of invertebrates in the stream
and on the land but fewer species of
vertebrates and plants everywhere
(b) more mammal and plant species, but fewer
birds and invertebrates on the land and in the
stream
(c) fewer species of vertebrates and plants
everywhere but more invertebrates in the
steam
(d) fewer species of plants, invertebrates, and
vertebrates everywhere
71. In the communities found deep in the ocean off
the shore of Japan, bacteria have special enzymes
that allow them to form organic matter by
chemosynthesis. These communities frequently
have worms, clams, shrimp and many other
organisms clustered together. These communities
nestle around hydrothermal vents where super
heated water, springs from the bottom of the
ocean. In hydrothermal vent communities, we
would not expect to find :
(a) carbon compounds
(b) chemosynthesis
(c) chlorophyll
(d) producers
72. Iron ore mining companies are expanding
into the deep forest of Orissa where native
populations of indigenous people have lived off
the land for many centuries. In order to resolve
the growing conflicts between the natives and
the mining companies. They have been urged
by the Government officials to bring together all
of the interested parties. The mining company
operations in the forest will likely lead to the loss
of ecosystem services, such as:
(a) the depletion of iron ore from the ground
(b) the shift from logging to mining
(c) sources of freshwater
(d) the construction of new roads
73. Neena gets a new baby turtle from a friend, and
is told to feed it worms. For the first few months,
the turtle seemed to grow fine. But as time
passed, the turtle’s shell appeared soft and fragile.
Someone suggested that the turtle might not be
getting enough calcium in its diet. If this is true
for this turtle, dietary calcium is :
(a) a limiting factor
(b) an environmental condition
(c) a habitat condition
(d) a natural environmental stressor
74. On a winter day, most automobiles keep the
passengers warm by using heat generated by the
engine. This use of the heat by-product from a
gas engine is an example of :
(a) non-fossil-fuel energy
(b) cogeneration
(c) nuclear power
(d) a sustainable source of energy
75 Some farmers rotate their crops from year to year,
switching from soyabeans to corn on the same
fields. What is one of the advantages of doing
this?
(a) Soyabeans add large amounts of carbon
dioxide to the soil, which helps the corn
crop.
(b) Both crops require the same fertilizing
supplies, so farmers save by buying fertilizer
in bulk.
(c) Corn adds large amounts of phosphorus to
the soil, which helps the soyabean crop
(d) The corn crop benefitsfrom reactive nitrogen
added to the soil by the soyabean crop
76. The concept of biodiversity hotspots is given by :
(a) F.P. Odum (b) Norman Myers
(c) James Lovelock (d) Rachel Carson
77. The concern about human-to-human transmission
of bird flu is most closely monitored by :
(a) the national governments of the countries of
the world
(b) the World Health Organization and the
Centers for Disease Control
(c) World Wide Institute for Infectious Disease
(d) International Centers for Health and Human
Disease
78. Walking along a large city park on a hot summer
day, you look for a cool resting place and sit down
on a large rock under a tree, at the quiet edge of
a stream. You have searched for and found an
example of a :
(a) microclimate (b) biome
(c) landscape (d) population
79. Which of the following is regarded as the main
cause of groundwater contamination?
(a) agricultural products
(b) landfills
(c) septic tanks
(d) All of the above main sources of ground water
contamination.
80. Chipko Movement occurred in which of following
region?
(a) Tribal areas of MP
(b) Rural area of Rajasthan
(c) Tehri Garhwal
(d) Darjeeling region
81. Which of following is One of the best solutions
to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is :
(a) Recycling waste
(b) Burying waste
(c) Burning waste
(d) All of the above
82. Which of following is correct statement about the
Ozone?
(a) Ozone in troposphere is good for breathing
(b) Ozone in Troposphere is not good for
breathing
(c) Ozone is present only in Troposphere.
(d) All of the above
83. Consider following statements about the Ozone
Hole
(I) Ozone formation and destruction keep on
happening
(II) Ozone destruction rate is higher than its
formation rate
(III) Ozone destruction rate is equal to the its
formation rate
Which of above statement is/ are true?
(a) (I) only
(b) (I) and (II) Only
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (III) Only
84. Earlier there was balance between the formation
and destruction of Ozone layer but after the release
of varieties of harmful substances into atmosphere,
this balance has been disturbed. Now rate of
destruction is higher than the rate of formation of
Ozone layer which is causing widening of Ozone
hole. CFC (Chlorofluorocarbons) is one of the
sources responsible for causing hole in Ozone
layer, which of following statement is correct about
the CFC:
1. CFCis made ofChlorine, fluorine, and carbon
2. CFC is released from Refrigerant, foams in
plastic manufacturing, etc
3. Refrigerant is the major source of CFC
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
85. Nitrogen Oxide is also held responsible for the
depletion of Ozone layer, which of the following
is source of Nitrogen Oxide?
(a) Industrial emission
(b) Fertilizers which are used in agricultural
activities
(c) Thermonuclear weapons
(d) All of the above
86. Which of the following statement is correct about
the intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC)?
(a) IPCC was established in 1988
(b) IPCC does not evaluate the risk of climate
change on human
(c) IPCC published its first report in 1989
(d) All of the above
87. Which of following statement is true about the
Ecotone?
(a) It is meeting place of two different eco
systems
(b) It is meeting place of two same eco systems
(c) Density of species is very low here
(d) All of the above.
88. Consider following statement about the estuary
(I) Estuary is a place where the river fresh water
meets with ocean water
(II) This area is highly productive
(III) This area is highly unproductive
(IV) All of the above
Which of above the statements is/are true?
(a) (I) only (b) (II) only
(c) (I) and II) (d) (III)
89. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
the Biosphere?
(a) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere,
hydrosphere and atmosphere
(b) Biosphere is missing at extreme of north and
south pole
(c) Organisms are uniformly present in Biosphere
(d) All of the above
90. What is the carbon credit?
(a) It is the difference between the carbon
emission allowed and actually emitted carbon
(b) It is the loan amount by IMF for reducing
pollution
(c) It is loan given to poor people for buying
Modern Stoves
(d) All of the above
91. What is the meaning of coral bleaching?
(a) Paling of coral color or decline in zooxanthellae
due to climate change
(b) Impacts of excessive sea trade on fishing
industry
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
92. Relative contributions of CO2, CH4, CFCs and
N2O towards global warming are:
(a) 50 %, 30 %, 10 % , and 10 % respectively
(b) 60%, 20%, 14%, and 6% respectively
(c) 40 %, 30%, 20% and 10% respectively
(d) None of the above
93. Which of the following can be used for controlling
Gaseous Pollutant?
(a) Arrestor (b) Incineration
(c) Absorption (d) None of above
94. What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand
(BOD) indicates?
(a) High level of Microbial Pollution
(b) Low level of Microbial Pollution
(c) Absence of Microbial Pollution
(d) Water is fully pure
95. What percent of area in the plain should be under
forest?
(a) 21 % (b) 25%
(c) 17% (d) 33%
96. Biodiversity Hotspot are characterized on the basis
of:
(a) Endemic flowering plants and threat
perception
(b) Endemic flowering plants
(c) Species of flowering plants
(d) None of above
97. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
(a) plankton
(b) nekton
(c) plankton and nekton
(d) benthos.
98. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most
severe between
(a) closely related organism growing in different
niches
(b) closely related organisms growing in the same
area/niche
(c) distantly related organisms growing in the
same habitat
(d) distantly related organisms growing in
different niches.
99. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion
of
(a) sand and zinc
(b) gravel and calcium
(c) clay and humus
(d) silt and earthworm.
100. Pick up the correct food chain
(a) grass → chamelion → insect → bird
(b) grass → fox → rabbit → bird
(c) phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish
(d) fallen leaves → bacteria → insect larvae.
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) , 2. (d) , 3. (c), 4. (d), 5. (b), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (b), 10. (d), 11. (d), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (d), 15. (b), 16. (d), 17. (a), 18.(c), 19. (a), 20. (c), 21. (b), 22. (c), 23. (c), 24. (c), 25. (b), 26. (d), 27. (c), 28. (b), 29. (b),30. (c), 31. (d), 32. (b), 33. (c), 34. (a), 35. (d), 36. (a), 37. (c), 38. (a), 39. (b), 40. (a), 41. (c), 42. (d), 43. (b), 44. (d), 45. (d), 46. (a), 47. (d), 48. (c), 49. (b), 50. (d), 51. (c), 52. (d), 53. (b), 54. (d), 55. (b), 56. (a), 57. (b), 58. (d), 59. (a), 59. (a), 60. (c), 61. (a),62. (c), 63. (d), 64. (d), 65. (b), 66. (d), 67. (b), 68. (c), 69. (a), 70. (d), 71. (c), 72. (c), 73. (a), 74. (b), 75. (d), 76. (b), 78. (a), 79. (d), 80. (c), 81. (a), 82. (b), 83. (b), 84. (d), 85. (d), 86. (a), 87. (a), 88. (c), 89. (c), 90. (a), 91. (a), 92. (b), 93. (c), 94. (a), 95. (d),96. (a), 97. (a), 98. (b), 99. (c), 100. (c)
Hints & Solutions
1. (a) Eduard Suess was an Austrian, responsible
for hypothesising two major former geographical
features, the supercontinent Gondwana and the
Tethys Ocean.The term "biosphere" was coined by
geologist Eduard Suess in 1875, which he defined as
"The place on Earth's surface where life dwells."
2. (d) The most abundant greenhouse gases in Earth's
atmosphere are:
Water vapor (H2O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane
(CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Ozone (O3) and CFCs.
3. (c) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily
implemented action plan of the United Nations
with regard to sustainable development. It is a
product of the UN Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil, in 1992. The "21" in Agenda 21 refers to the
21st Century.
4. (d) Environmental degradation means lowering of
environmental qualities, adverse changes by human
activities and ecological imbalance.
5. (b) United States and Canada are the countries
which are mostly affected by acid rain because of
high number of factories, power plants and large
number of automotive plants. Europe, Poland,
Germany, Czech Republic, Sweden, Norway
and Finland are affected because of British and
European factories. In Asia, India and China are
mostly affected mainly because of the large number
of factories.
6. (b) Radioactive contamination or pollution causes
severe life- threatening consequences in organisms.
Because of the radioactive decay of the contaminants,
which emit harmful ionising radiation such as alpha
or beta particles, gamma rays or neutrons, genetic
mutations occur which are hereditary. Carcinogenic
contaminants cause cancer.
7. (a) Natural vegetation is the true index of climate
because water loving plants are found in moist
climate.
8. (c) Global warming is the increase in the global
temperature. It has put many negative impacts on
glaciers causing them to start melting, so, rise of sea
level. Unpredictable weather conditions prevailing
in some geographical areas are some of the other
effects of global warming.
9. (b) Forests are renewable natural resources and
enhance the quality of environment by providing
the Oxygen needed to sustain life on the earth.
Although both assertion and reason are correct
statements but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
10. (d) As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for
nutrient recovery and cycling, releasing heavy
metals through absorption by plants. They also
control floods and maintain floods.
11. (d) The Milankovitch theory is an explanation
of long term climate change. The book ‘On the
Origin of Species’ was written by Charles Darwin,
published on 24 November 1859.
12. (a) Ecosystem is the dynamic community of
living organism with physical environment. Thus,
it comprises of both biotic and abiotic components.
Solar energy is the ultimate source of energy in it, so
is the main driving force. Dynamic energy transfers
occur making it an open system. The autotrophs
make the ecosystem’s biotic components self-
sufficient.
13. (a) Plants are called primary producers because
plants produce their food themselves through the
process of photosynthesis.
14. (d) As we go higher in the trophic levels through
the food chain, the loss of energy due to respiration
as well as metabolic activities successively increase.
So, there occurs the transference of only 10% of the
preceding trophic level to the next higher trophic
level.
15. (b) Both the assertion and reason are correct
statements but the later is not the correct explanation
of the former. The basic planning for environment
includes ‘conservation of organisms and resources’
as the most valuable component. Development can
be complementary to conservation, only when it is
sustainable.
16. (d) The ever-increasing human population creates
a loss of natural habitat of organisms and have other
impacts such as various kinds of pollution. Thus,
the ecosystem gets imbalanced in many ecological
terms.
17. (a) Both the statements are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
18. (c) The relative loss of energy increases in
successive trophic levels. Primary consumers use
10% of the energy stored in plants. Secondary and
tertiary consumers transfer 20% of the energy from
their own bodies so they are more efficient. In going
from lower to higher trophic levels energy transfers
are insufficient so making the food chains limited
to only 4-5 trophic levels. Higher trophic levels are
less discrete due to their less specialised food habits.
19. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A. Organic farming depends on
on-farm resources, using alternative sources like
usage of no chemical pesticides and fertilizers, on-
farm practices which do not depend on fossil fuels
consumption.
20. (c) The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
an autonomous body was established in 2003 to
implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
21. (b) Bandipur National Park, a tiger reserve is
located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.
Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
is a National Park, UNESCO Natural World
Heritage site, a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant
Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve in Assam. The
Sundarban National Park is a National Park, Tiger
Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve in India. It is a
part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta of India
and Bangladesh.
Bhitarkanika National Park is a national park
located in the Kendrapara District Odisha, which is
not specifically for Tiger reserve.
22. (c) Wetlands cover around 3% of the total land
area of India. Gujarat occupies around 3 million
hectares of wetlands out of India’s total 10 million
hectares of wetland area. India has total 27,403
wetands, of which 23,444 are inland wetlands and
3,959 are coastal wetlands but the coastal wetlands
occupy an estimated 6,750 sq km, which is more
than the inland wetlands.
23. (c) Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and
invasion of alien species can be threats to the bio-
diversity of a geographical area.
24. (c) There is an increase in biodiversity from the
poles to the tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes
have more species than localities at higher latitudes.
25. (b) The ICUN Red list of threatened species or the
Red Data Book is the state document established
for documenting rare and endangered species
of animals, plants and fungi existing within the
territory of the state or country.
26. (d) Biological diversity helps in the formation
and maintenance of soil structure and the retention
of moisture and nutrient levels. Trees on the other
hand, lower the water table and remove deposited
salt from the upper soil horizons.
27. (c) The Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife
Sanctuary is a forest and wildlife sanctuary in
Gujarat. It is the sole home of the Asiatic Lions
(Panthera leopersica). Sundarbans National Park
in West Bengal is the home of Bengal tigers. Betla
National Park islocated in the Chota Nagpur Plateau
of the Latehar district of Jharkhand. Kaziranga
National Park is located in Golaghat and Nagaon
districts of Assam, a World Heritage Site, the park
hosts two-thirds of the world's Great One-horned
Rhinoceroses.
28. (b) Nilgiri biosphere site was set up in 1986.
Nanda Devi biosphere site was set up in 1988.
Sundarban biosphere site was set up in 1989.
Kanchanjunga biosphere site was set up in 2000.
29. (b) A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic
region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity
that is under threat from humans. Around the world,
as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out
of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas
and Western Ghats.
30. (c) Dihang-Dibang or Dehang-Debang is a
biosphere reserve constituted under the Man &
Biosphere Programme. It is in the Arunachal
Pradesh. Manas National Park is in Assam. Nokrek
National Park is located in West Garo Hills district
of Meghalaya. Simlipal National Park is an elephant
reserve situated in the Mayurbhanj district in
Odisha.
31. (d) The correct descending order of mangrove
cover in the states are West Bengal, Gujarat, Andhra
Pradesh, Orissa.
32. (b) The concept of biodiversity was propounded
by E.O. Wilson. The concept of wildlife was
propounded by W. Hornaday. The concept of
Ecosystem propounded by G. Tansley. The concept
of Ecology was propounded by E. Haeckel.
33. (c) Dachigam National Park is located 22
kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It
covers an area of 141 square kilometres. Loktak
Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, also
called the only Floating lake in the world due
to the floating phumdis (heterogeneous mass of
vegetation, soil, and organic matters at various
stages of decomposition) on it, is located near
Moirang in Manipur.
34. (a) Namdapha National Park is the largest
protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity
hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Periyar
National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected
area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in
Kerala. Bandipur National Park, established in 1974
as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national
park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park
in the Bishnupur district of Manipur.
35. (d) Bees, bats and birds are the biotic pollinating
agents. Wind is also an agent of pollination but is an
abiotic agent.
36. (a) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA)
report 2005 defines Ecosystem services as benefits
people obtain from ecosystems and distinguishes
four categories of ecosystem services: 1. Supporting
services, 2. Provisioning services, 3. Regulating
services, 4. Cultural services.
37. (c) Keystone species are not necessarily small
sized though they put great effect on the environment.
They play very critical role in maintaining the
structure of an ecological community by affecting
many other organisms. An ecosystem may
experience a dramatic shift if a keystone species
is removed, even though that species may be small
part of the ecosystem by measures of biomass or
productivity.
38. (a) Mangrove- plants have higher concentration
of salts and minerals (solutes, such as proline and
sorbitol) in the cells making their osmotic potential
higher than the surrounding water in which they
grow. This is a type of adaptation that allows water
uptake by the plants in spite of growing in salty
waters. Some mangroves also pump out excess salt
by specialised roots.
39. (b) The term ‘ammensalism’ generally refers to
the complete or partial inhibition or death of one
organism by another through production of some
chemicals (allochemicals) as a result of metabolic
pathways. In it, none of the organisms gets any
benefit. It is more common in microbial world.
40. (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A. The weedicides and herbicides
are metabolic inhibitors, inhibiting the metabolic
pathways as well as photosynthesis. Some
weedicides also cause phloem cells’ proliferation so
as to block the transport of plants’ food materials.
41. (c) A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity
has been launched on 29 January, 2014. It will
present spatial information and species distribution
patterns. TheAtlasis an output of BioFresh – an EU-
funded project in which the IUCN Global Species
Programme is a key partner. It is working to better
understand, manage and protect our freshwaters, for
generations to come.
42. (d) The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation
(GSF) certification has been awarded to the Delhi
Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC), for efficient
usage of energy, on 2 February, 2014. DMRC has
become the first ever Railway system in the world
with GSF certification standard. In 2008, DMRC
had also become the first Railway project in the
world to be registered by the UN under the Clean
Development Mechanism (CDM).
43. (b) IUCN, the world’s oldest and largest global
environmental organization, is celebrating its
completion of 50 years. It was founded in 1948. It
lists out all types of organisms vulnerable to any
kind of loss, in its Red data book.
44. (d) The earthquake felt in Java, Indonesia, had
been measured to be 6.1 on Richter’s scale. It is
prone to such tremors due to its location in Pacific
Ring of fire. One of the incidents occurred in here
in 2004 when a monster temblor off Aceh shores
triggered a tsunami that killed 230,000 people in a
dozen countries.
45. (d) Almost all of the mercury in the Arctic
atmosphere is transported there in gaseous form
from sources in areas farther south, from sources
such as wildfires, coal burning and gold mining.
Scientists have long known that mercury in the air
near ground level undergoes complex chemical
reactions that deposit the element on the surface.
Once the mercury is completely removed from
the air, these reactions stop. However, this newly
discovered mixing ice forces down additional
mercury to restart and sustains the reactions.
46. (a) The researchers isolated metabolic genes from
multiple species of bacteria and pieced them together
in Escherichia coli (E.coli) to create artificial
biochemical pathways that convert free fatty acids to
hydrocarbons. One such pathway, named CEDDEC,
contained metabolic genes from the bioluminescent
bacterium Photorhabdus luminescens and the
cyanobacterium Nostoc punctiforme. When grown
in broth containing various combinations of fatty
acids, or when modified to express additional
genes, the engineered E. coli produced molecules
that are structurally and chemically identical to 10
retail diesel fuel hydrocarbons commonly used in
temperate climates.
47. (d) The schedule is meant to reduce the growth
of the US government’s liabilities under the 1982
Nuclear Waste Policy Act, under which it was
to begin taking spent reactor fuel from power
companies in 1998. About 68,000 tonnes of used
reactor fuel remains at 72 different power plant sites
across the country, with the Department of Energy
(DoE) reimbursing power companies the cost. The
current production rate of spent fuel is 2,000 tonnes
a year. The two interim facilities will accept used
reactor fuel at a rate faster than this in order to
reduce gradually the inventory at power companies.
48. (c) It is believed that other sea creatures such
as turtles, sharks and whales may also use Earth's
magnetic field to roam the oceans.
The 17-year-old Machli is the longest living
wild tigress in the world, besides being the most
photographed big cat. The tigress was identified as
T-16. Machli had survived in the dense forest by
hunting her own prey despite her advanced age.
49. (b) The Researchers found a small correlation
between cosmic rays and global temperatures
occurring every 22 years; however, the changing
cosmic ray rate lagged behind the change in
temperatures by between one and two years,
suggesting that the cause might not be down to
cosmic rays and cloud formation but might be due
to the direct effects of the sun. By comparing the
small oscillations in the cosmic ray rate, which were
taken from data from two neutron monitors, and temperature with the overall trends in both since
1955, the research team found that less than 14 per
cent of the global warming seen during this period
could be attributable to solar activity.
50. (d) Other reasons for the decline in the number
of these birds are changes in cropping pattern due
to various reasons including implementation of
irrigation schemes; increased pesticide usage and
livestock-grazing; high levels of disturbance; and
developmental activities like mining and hydel
projects. This also includes collision of the birds
with vehicles, wind turbines and power lines
51. (c) The IUCN also provides the information that
is related to species-based conservation actions.
It also helps in identifying globally important
sites for conservation including important plant
areas, important bird areas, key biodiversity
areas and alliance for zero extinction sites. It
helps in influencing the decisions of conservation
at multiple scales that include environmental
impact assessments to international multilateral
environments agreements. It indicates the current
status of species and revealing trends in their
extinction risk over time, to track progress towards
biodiversity targets.
52. (d) For conservation of endangered species
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been established
for control of illegal trade in wildlife, including
endangered species of birds and their parts and
products. Research and monitoring activities on
birds are promoted by the Government through
reputed research organizations. Wildlife Institute
of India, Bombay Natural History society and
Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural
History are some of the research organizations
undertaking research on conservation of birds. The
Indian government has banned the veterinary use
of diclofenac drug that has caused rapid decline in
vulture population across the Indian Subcontinent.
Conservation Breeding Programmes to conserve
these vulture species have been initiated at Pinjore
(Haryana), Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani, Guwahati
(Assam) by the Bombay Natural History Society.
53. (b) GSF standard certification is a globally
accepted certification standard for carbon mitigation
projects. The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
(DMRC) registered for the certification standard
for its energy efficiency measures undertaken in 51
stations in Phase II of the DMRC Project. The energy
efficiency measures were primarily undertaken in
the heating, venting and air conditioning (HVAC)
systems, lighting system and other energy efficient
measures of station buildings; the measures adopted
in the HVAC system resulted in reduction in
electrical energy consumption.
54. (b) The veterinary drug Diclofenac that is used
in vetting the cattle has been identified as a reason
that is causing the sharp deep in the number of
vultures. Use of this drug has been banned in India.
Diclofenac is toxic for any and all vultures that feed
on the carcass of recently treated cattle. Saving
Asia’s Vultures from Extinction (SAVE) in its study
says that the version for human use is being illegally
given to the cattle. A programme named SAVE in
its plan will release up to 25 birds into the 30000
kilometer square safe zone. The captive-bred birds
will be released into the wild by 2016 under the
project.
55. (b) Tree foundation, an NGO engaged in
conservation of the sea turtle, found more than
100 dead Olive Ridley turtles in the shores of
Nagapattinam. The Olive Ridley turtles are rusty
coloured carapace and have slightly smaller head
and shell than the Kemp turtles. These Olive Ridley
turtles generally occur through the Antilles, around
the north coast of South America, in West Africa,
the Indian Ocean, Australia and Southeast Asia.
As per the reports the populations of Olive Riddles
have declined in Pakistan, Myanmar, Malaysia and
Thailand, and possibly on the east coast of India,
south of Orissa and in the Andaman and Nicobar
islands.
56. (a) Chilika is the only site to be selected from Asia
by the UNWTO and was included in a list of eight
such sites. The Destination Flyways initiative of
UNWTO aims at promotion of sustainable tourism.
The lagoon was named so for its sustainable and
resilient destination for migratory birds. The status
will help Chilika Development Authority (CDA)
to develop strategies for protection of migratory
birds through creation of innovative tourism and
livelihood products. Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lake in Asia with estuarine character
that sprawls along the east coast. It is the largest
wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found
anywhere in the Indian sub-continent. It is one of
the hotspot of biodiversity in the country, and some
rare, vulnerable and endangered species listed in the
IUCN Red List of threatened Animals inhabit the
lagoon for at least part of their life cycle.
57. (b) First Climate Change theatre was opened at
Pushpa Gujral Science City in Kapurthala, Punjab
on 16 January 2014. The theatre will educate people
on climate change. This is the second theatre in the
world to be opened after Canada. The theatre is 18
metre in diameter and it is set up in a dome-shaped
building with a seating capacity of 125 persons.
The 25-minute film shows what worst can happen if
humans do not take action on current or impending
problems which could threaten civilization. The
film starts by giving a glimpse of future - floods,
droughts, earthquakes and other natural disasters.
58. (d) The estimation of retreat of Gangotri
glacier has been measured using rapid static and
kinematic GPS survey. The Gangotri is one of the
largest Himalayan glaciers in Uttarkashi district,
Uttarakand.The glaciers originate at about 7100
meter above the sea level and are 30.2 km long and
width that varies between 0.5 and 2.5 km. The River
Bhagirathi, one of the main tributaries of the Ganga,
originates from Gangotri glacier.
59. (a) The aim of the Taishan research base station
is to provide a base for research on bio-ecology
and remote satellite sensing. The camp will be used
from December to March every year and is located
near the United States' McMurdo Station, Italy's
Zucchelli Station and a recently built South Korean
station. Base Stations of India at Antarctica are
Dakshin Gangotri, Maitri, and Bharathi.
60. (c) Along with the first 3 species Mystus menoni
species of Catfish were discovered from the
Manimala river. Catfish are freshwater, bottom-
dwelling fish. Unlike other fish, they have no
scales and are smooth-skinned. They are known for
growing whiskers, called "barbels," at some point
during their lifespan. Catfish use their barbels as
feelers as they swim along the bottom of the various
bodies of water in which they live. There are 2,900
species of catfish worldwide. They range in size
from 1.5 to 2 in chesto more than 8 feet in length.
61. (a) The ministry declared 313 sq km around the
Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat
as an eco-sensitive zone through a notification. Of
this, 208 sq km is land while the remaining is on
the seaside. Land use for recreational, commercial
or industrial development will not be permitted in
the area except for residential purpose. Mining,
including fresh water mining, and release of
polluted water and waste will also be prohibited.
The ministry even disallowed fishing by trawlers.
The government will prepare a zonal ecology
conservation master plan. The plan will restore
denuded areas as well as existing water bodies. The
plan should also have provision for management
of catchment areas, watershed management,
groundwater and soil conservation.
62. (c) Magellanics are medium-sized penguins
standing about 15 inches tall and weighing about
10 pounds. Males of the species sound like braying
donkeys when they vocalize. Among 17 species
of penguins, 10 including Magellancis breeds are
found in the region, where there is no snow, it is
relatively dry and temperatures can be temperate.
To protect the chicks, parents are too big to sit
over and those are still too young to have grown
waterproof feathers. Downy penguin chicks
exposed to drenching rain can struggle and die in
absence of the attention of their concerned parents.
During extreme heat chicks without waterproofing
can’t take a dip in cooling waters as adults.
64. (d) Dung beetles and disease carrying flies
both compete for the same food, that is cattle
droppings. Since both of these organisms belong
to different species, this competition is called
interspecific competition.
65. (b) In environmental law, the polluter pays
principle is enacted to make the party responsible
for producing pollution, to be held responsible
for paying the damage done to the natural
environment.
66. (d) The flea beetles have proved to be an
effective means of controlling leafy spurge. The
flea beetles typically take 3-5 years to establish
and impact leafy spurge infestations.
67. (b) Scientists have recognized that nutrient
enrichment was a threat to the bay. In 1987
formal goals were established to reduce nitrogen
and phosphorous inputs to the bay from both
point and non point sources.
68. (c) In parasitic food chains, the pyramid of
number is always inverted as a single plant may
support many herbivores and birds and each one
of these in turn, may provide nutrition to several
hyperparasites.
71. (c) In hydrothermal vent communities,
we should not expect to find chlorophyll as
photosynthesis cannot take place due to absence
of light.
74. (b) Cogeneration or combined heat and power
(CHP) is the use of a heat engine or power station
to simultaneously generate electricity and useful
heat.
75. (d) In addition to increasing corn yields and
cutting nitrogen expense, keeping soyabeans in
the rotation lowers next years corn rootworm
management costs.
76. (b) The concept of biodiversity hotspot was
given by Norman Myers.In 1988 he first identified
10 tropical forest “hotspots” characterised
by both exceptional level of plant endemism
and by serious levels of habitat loss. Later on,
Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’
hotspots. They gave a broad definition criteria of
the Biodiversity hotspot.
77. (b) The concern about human-to-human
transmission of bird flu virus H5N1 is closely
monitored by government agencies in order to
determine whether human-to-human transmission
is occurring.
The CDC (Centre for Disease Control) and
WHO recommend the prescription antiviral drug
Tamiflu (oseltamivir) for treating and preventing
human infections with the bird flue virus.
78. (a) Microclimate is defined as the climate of a
very small or restricted area, especially when this
differs from the climate of the surrounding area.
Here, while the climate of the surrounding area
is very hot the place at the edge of the stream,
under the tree, on a rock will have a cooler
microcleinate.
79. (d) Materials from land’s surface can travel
through the soil ultimately reaching the
groundwater. For example pesticide and fertilizers
can enter into the ground water supplies. Untreated
waste from septic tanks and toxic chemicals from
underground storage tanks and leaky landfills can
also contaminate groundwater.
81. (a) Recycling is the best way to get rid of non-
biodegradable waste. Burying will not have any
effect on the non-biodegradable wastes. Burning
causes pollution.
82. (b) Ozone present in the stratosphere, acts as a
protection from U.V. light. Without this protective
shield, all life would be more susceptible to
cancer, impaired immunity and other health issues.
Whereas the ozone present in the troposphere,
which is close to earth surface, can damage our
lungs. Hence it is not good for breathing.
83. (b) In an pollution free stratosphere, the
production and destruction of ozone are in balance
and hence the concentration of O3 remains constant
with time. When CFC’s are released into the lower
troposphere, they diffuse up into the stratosphere
since their lifetime is 50-100 years when CFCs
reach the middle stratosphere, UV radiation
liberates the chlorine atom.
CFC + UV → Cl
Cl is then able to destroy as man as 100,000 O3
molecules.
84. (d) It has been proved that CFCs are a major cause
of depletion of the earth’s stratospheric ozone layer
and contribute to the green house effect.
Large quantities of CFCs are used as refrigerants
in a number of refrigerating and air conditioning
systems. Though the refrigerant moves in a closed
cycle, there are lots of leakages that escape to the
atmosphere and cause destruction of the ozone
layer. CFCs have exceptionally long atmospheric
life, which can extend upto 100 years.
86. (a) IPCC is the leading international body
for the assessment of climate change. It was
established by the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) and theWorld Meteorological
Organisation (WMO) in 1988 to provide the world
with a clear scientific view on the current state
of knowledge in climate change and its potential environmental and socio-economic impacts.
87. (a) Ecotone is a place where two different eco
systems meet each other. Mangrove and terrestrial
eco system is an example of Ecotone. This area is
very rich in species. The ecotone has species of
both ecosystems as well as some species which
are charecterstic and restricted to the ecotone.
88. (c) Estuary is a place where the fresh water of
river or stream meets with ocean water. This place
provides the conducive conditions for development
of different species.
89. (c) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere,
hydrosphere and atmosphere. Biosphere is
not found everywhere, some areas do not
support the conditions required for Biosphere.
Hence Organisms are not uniformly distributed
throughout the world.
90. (a) Carbon credit shows that a country or any
entity emits the carbon below the limit prescribed
by the government, hence the country or entity can
sell it in exchange where carbon credits are traded.
91. (a) Coral Bleaching is being caused by the
climate change. Increase in surface temperature
of ocean due to climate change is increasing
the decline of zooxanthellae. Zooxanthellae is
responsible for the process of photosynthesis.
92. (b) CO2 is the largest contributor towards global
warming, followed by methane, CFCs and N2O.
93. (c) Absorption technique is used for controlling
Gaseous pollutant. These pollutants are brought
into contact with a liquid such as water. The liquid
absorbs the gas.
94. (a) Oxygen is required for decomposition of
microorganism under the water. Increase in
waste and pollution enhances the decomposition
activities and thereby reduces the availability of
oxygen for other organic activities under the water
body. Hence a higher demand of oxygen (BOD)
indicates higher level of microbial pollution.
95. (d) National Forest Policy has recommended
that in order to maintain the ecological balance
there should be 33 % area under the forest in plain
areas. However, the present forest cover in India
is around 21-22 %.
96. (a) Biodiversity hotspots are areas rich in plant
species and these species are endemic to this
area. Endemism implies the presence of species
in particular area only.
97. (a) Planktons are passively floating in upper
water, nektons are actively swimming while
benthos lead sedentary life upon the sea bottom.
Planktons are producers and are present in large
number.
98. (b) Competition is rivalry for obtaining the
same resource. Competition of light, nutrients
and space is most severe between closely related
organisms growing in the same area/niche, due to
overproduction of population in the same area/
niche.
99. (c) Deep black soil is productive due to high
proportion of clay and humus. The organic matter
present in the soil is contributed by the death and
decay of living organisms. These are the richest
in nutrients and therefore these soils are the most
fertile.
100. (c) The process of transfer of energy from
producers through a series of organisms, i.e., from
primary consumers to secondary consumers and
from secondary consumers to tertiary consumers
by process of eating and being eaten is known
as a food chain. The correct food chain is
phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish
1. Jurisdiction of which among the following high courts covers the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Kolkata High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer : [b]
[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Kolkata High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer : [b]
2. Keoladeo National Park is located in which district of Rajasthan?
[A] Bharatpur
[B] Ajmer
[C] Jaipur
[D] Kota
Answer : [a]
[A] Bharatpur
[B] Ajmer
[C] Jaipur
[D] Kota
Answer : [a]
3. The earliest evidence of domestication of animals has been provided by Adamagarh. In which of the following states is located Adamgarh ?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Gujarat
[D] Maharastra
Answer : [b]
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Gujarat
[D] Maharastra
Answer : [b]
4. Which of the following passes was used by Sakas to come to India?
[A] Bolan Pass
[B] Nathu La Pass
[C] Shipki La Pass
[D] Bara-lacha la Pass
Answer : [a]
[A] Bolan Pass
[B] Nathu La Pass
[C] Shipki La Pass
[D] Bara-lacha la Pass
Answer : [a]
5. Process of cell division can take place by
[A] heterosis
[B] fusion
[C] mitosis
[D] None of these
Answer : [c]
[A] heterosis
[B] fusion
[C] mitosis
[D] None of these
Answer : [c]
6. Ordinary table salt is sodium chloride. What is baking soda?
[A] Potassium chloride
[B] Potassium carbonate
[C] Potassium hydroxide
[D] Sodium bicarbonate
Answer : [d]
[A] Potassium chloride
[B] Potassium carbonate
[C] Potassium hydroxide
[D] Sodium bicarbonate
Answer : [d]
7. By whom Pallava King Mahendravarman-I got defeated?
[A] Pulakesin II
[B] Vikramaditya II
[C] Yajnavarman
[D] Pulakesin I
Answer : [a]
[A] Pulakesin II
[B] Vikramaditya II
[C] Yajnavarman
[D] Pulakesin I
Answer : [a]
8. Which among the following play is/are written by Harshavardhan ?
[A] Nagananda
[B] Ratnavali
[C] Priyadarshika
[D] All of these
Answer : [d]
[A] Nagananda
[B] Ratnavali
[C] Priyadarshika
[D] All of these
Answer : [d]
9. Which district of Bihar is known as “Lychee (litchi) Kingdom”?
[A] Muzaffarpur
[B] Bhagalpur
[C] Gaya
[D] Madhubani
Answer : [a]
10. Mumps is a disease caused by
[A] fungus
[B] bacterium
[C] virus
[D] None of these
Answer : [c]
[A] fungus
[B] bacterium
[C] virus
[D] None of these
Answer : [c]
11. The Nalanda University was founded by which Gupta ruler?
[A] Samudragupta
[B] Kumargupta I/
[C] Skandgupta
[D] Chandragupta I
Answer : [b]
[A] Samudragupta
[B] Kumargupta I/
[C] Skandgupta
[D] Chandragupta I
Answer : [b]
12. The achievements of Samudragupta are mentioned in which inscription?
[A] Hathigumpha inscription
[B] Allahabad Pillar inscription
[C] Bairut inscription
[D] Junagarh Pillar inscription
Answer : [b]
[A] Hathigumpha inscription
[B] Allahabad Pillar inscription
[C] Bairut inscription
[D] Junagarh Pillar inscription
Answer : [b]
13. What was the ruling period of Chalukyas of Badami ?
[A] 500 – 550 A.D
[B] 550 – 650
[C] 543 – 757 A.D.
[D] 545 – 700 A.D.
Answer : [c]
[A] 500 – 550 A.D
[B] 550 – 650
[C] 543 – 757 A.D.
[D] 545 – 700 A.D.
Answer : [c]
14. Ashok Pandit is known for his outstanding performance in which field?
[A] Wrestling
[B] Kabaddi
[C] Shooting
[D] Swimming
Answer : [c]
[A] Wrestling
[B] Kabaddi
[C] Shooting
[D] Swimming
Answer : [c]
15. Who is the father of Geometry?
[A] Aristotle
[B] Euclid
[C] Pythagoras
[D] Kepler
Answer : [b]
[A] Aristotle
[B] Euclid
[C] Pythagoras
[D] Kepler
Answer : [b]
16. When is the World Population Day observed?
[A] May 31
[B] October 4
[C] December 10
[D] July 11
Answer : [d]
[A] May 31
[B] October 4
[C] December 10
[D] July 11
Answer : [d]
17. The first Indian to swim across English channel was
[A] V. Merchant
[B] P. K. Banerji
[C] Mihir Sen
[D] Arati Saha
Answer : [c]
[A] V. Merchant
[B] P. K. Banerji
[C] Mihir Sen
[D] Arati Saha
Answer : [c]
18. Most of the red, blue and purple colours of plants are due to a pigment called
[A] anthocyanin
[B] carotene
[C] chlorophyll
[D] xanthophylls
Answer : [a]
[A] anthocyanin
[B] carotene
[C] chlorophyll
[D] xanthophylls
Answer : [a]
19. Which Gupta emperor was an expert Veena player?
[A] Sri Gupta
[B] Samudragupta
[C] Chandragupta I
[D] Kumargupta I
Answer : [b]
[A] Sri Gupta
[B] Samudragupta
[C] Chandragupta I
[D] Kumargupta I
Answer : [b]
20. Who is known as the 'Lady with the Lamp'?
[A] Florence Nightingale
[B] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Indira Gandhi
[D] Joan of Arc
Answer : [a]
[A] Florence Nightingale
[B] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Indira Gandhi
[D] Joan of Arc
Answer : [a]
21. Who composed Buddhacharita?
[A] Kanishka I
[B] Kanishka II
[C] Asvaghosha
[D] Charak
Answer : [c]
[A] Kanishka I
[B] Kanishka II
[C] Asvaghosha
[D] Charak
Answer : [c]
22. Who among the following of Gupta dynasty adopted the title ‘Kaviraja’?
[A] Chandragupta I
[B] Kumargupta
[C] Samudragupta
[D] Skandgupta
Answer : [c]
[A] Chandragupta I
[B] Kumargupta
[C] Samudragupta
[D] Skandgupta
Answer : [c]
23. The hardest form of carbon is
[A] coke
[B] graphite
[C] diamond
[D] charcoal
Answer : [c]
[A] coke
[B] graphite
[C] diamond
[D] charcoal
Answer : [c]
24. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of
[A] Sitar
[B] Flute
[C] Sarod
[D] Tabla
Answer : [b]
[A] Sitar
[B] Flute
[C] Sarod
[D] Tabla
Answer : [b]
25. Who is known as 'Desert Fox'?
[A] Bismarck
[B] Eisenhower
[C] Gen. Rommel
[D] Walter Scott
Answer : [c]
[A] Bismarck
[B] Eisenhower
[C] Gen. Rommel
[D] Walter Scott
Answer : [c]
26. The nucleus of a hydrogen atom consists of
[A] 1 proton only
[B] 1 proton + 2 neutron
[C] 1 neutron only
[D] 1 electron only
Answer : [a]
[A] 1 proton only
[B] 1 proton + 2 neutron
[C] 1 neutron only
[D] 1 electron only
Answer : [a]
27. Who was the founder of the the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929?
[A] Sahajanand Saraswati
[B] N. G. Ranga
[C] Karyanand Sharma
[D] Ram Manohar Lohia
Answer : [a]
[A] Sahajanand Saraswati
[B] N. G. Ranga
[C] Karyanand Sharma
[D] Ram Manohar Lohia
Answer : [a]
28. Who wrote Kadambari?
[A] Chankya
[B] Banabhatta
[C] Charak
[D] Radhagupt
Answer : [b]
[A] Chankya
[B] Banabhatta
[C] Charak
[D] Radhagupt
Answer : [b]
29. Plant development is influenced by
[A] quality of light only
[B] quality and quantity of light
[C] quality and duration of light
[D] quality, quantity and duration of light
Answer : [d]
[A] quality of light only
[B] quality and quantity of light
[C] quality and duration of light
[D] quality, quantity and duration of light
Answer : [d]
30. Norepinephrine increases
[A] respiration
[B] urine production
[C] saliva production
[D] blood pressure
Answer : [d]
31. Which among the following Pallava king wrote the famous burlesque ‘Mattavilasa Prahasana’ ?
[A] Mahendravarman I
[B] Narsimhavarman
[C] Narsimhavarman II
[D] Paramesvar Varman
Answer : [a]
32. Who was the first Indo-Greek king, who became Buddhist?
[A] Antiochus II
[B] Apollodotus I
[C] Apollodotus II
[D] Menander II
Answer : [d]
33. Which among the following dance form from Assam is a Classical dance in India?
[A] Sattriya
[B] Bihu
[C] Bodos
[D] Bagurumba
Answer : [a]
34. Which day is observed as World No Smoking Day ?
[A] 15th July
[B] 31st December
[C] 1st January
[D] 31st May
Answer : [d]
35. In which of the following dance forms 'Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra' is associated with?
[A] Odissi
[B] Bharathanatiyam
[C] Kathak
[D] Kathakali
Answer : [a]
36. Who was the court poet of Samudragupta?
[A] Harisena
[B] Asanga
[C] Veerasena Saba
[D] Vasubandhu
Answer : [a]
37. Who has scored the most runs in a single First-class innings?
[A] Hanif Mohammad
[B] Brian Lara
[C] Sir Donald Bradman
[D] Sachin Tendulkar
Answer : [b]
38. Which cricketer died on the field in Bangladesh while playing for Abahani Club?
[A] Subhash Gupte
[B] M.L.Jaisimha
[C] Lala Amarnath
[D] Raman Lamba
Answer : [d]
39. On the suggestion of Rabindra Nath Tagore, the date of partition of Bengal (October 16, 1905) was celebrated as__?
[A] Rakhi Bandhan Day
[B] Brotherhood Day
[C] Solidarity Day
[D] Black Day
Answer : [a]
40. Medieval King “Lalitaditya Muktapida” is related to which of the following regions?
[A] Bundelkhand
[B] Kashmir
[C] Sindh
[D] Gujarat
Answer : [b]
41. The Portuguese built their first fortress in India at __?
[A] Cochin
[B] Goa
[C] Anjidiv
[D] Cannanore
Answer : [a]
42. Who is the highest wicket taker in Test cricket?
[A] Shane Warne
[B] Brian Lara
[C] Courtney Walsh
[D] Muttiah Muralitharan
Answer : [d]
43. When was Orissa separated from Bihar to become a separate province?
[A] 1 January 1948
[B] 1 April 1936
[C] 28 August 1955
[D] 1 November 1958
Answer : [b]
44. The largest gulf in the world is
[A] Gulf of Mexico
[B] Persian Gulf
[C] Gulf of Carpentaria
[D] Gulf of Mannar
Answer : [a]
45. The founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj was ___?
[A] Atmaram Pandurang
[B] Gopal Hari Deshmukh
[C] M. G. Ranade
[D] Jyotiba Phule
Answer : [d]
46. Special women commando force raised by Assam government is:
[A] Virangana
[B] Nirbhaya
[C] Sribal
[D] Naribal
Answer : [a]
47. The World Environment Day is celebrated on
[A] April 7
[B] June 5
[C] August 6
[D] June 16
Answer : [b]
48. On which date, National Broadcasting day is observed?
[A] July 23
[B] June 2
[C] March 15
[D] January 19
Answer : [a]
49. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
[A] the Palghat gap
[B] the Bhorghat pass
[C] the Thalgat pass
[D] the Bolan pass
Answer : [a]
50. World Human Rights Day is observed on
[A] April 8
[B] December 10
[C] December 7
[D] September 5
Answer : [b]
Continue Reading
[A] respiration
[B] urine production
[C] saliva production
[D] blood pressure
Answer : [d]
31. Which among the following Pallava king wrote the famous burlesque ‘Mattavilasa Prahasana’ ?
[A] Mahendravarman I
[B] Narsimhavarman
[C] Narsimhavarman II
[D] Paramesvar Varman
Answer : [a]
32. Who was the first Indo-Greek king, who became Buddhist?
[A] Antiochus II
[B] Apollodotus I
[C] Apollodotus II
[D] Menander II
Answer : [d]
33. Which among the following dance form from Assam is a Classical dance in India?
[A] Sattriya
[B] Bihu
[C] Bodos
[D] Bagurumba
Answer : [a]
34. Which day is observed as World No Smoking Day ?
[A] 15th July
[B] 31st December
[C] 1st January
[D] 31st May
Answer : [d]
35. In which of the following dance forms 'Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra' is associated with?
[A] Odissi
[B] Bharathanatiyam
[C] Kathak
[D] Kathakali
Answer : [a]
36. Who was the court poet of Samudragupta?
[A] Harisena
[B] Asanga
[C] Veerasena Saba
[D] Vasubandhu
Answer : [a]
37. Who has scored the most runs in a single First-class innings?
[A] Hanif Mohammad
[B] Brian Lara
[C] Sir Donald Bradman
[D] Sachin Tendulkar
Answer : [b]
38. Which cricketer died on the field in Bangladesh while playing for Abahani Club?
[A] Subhash Gupte
[B] M.L.Jaisimha
[C] Lala Amarnath
[D] Raman Lamba
Answer : [d]
39. On the suggestion of Rabindra Nath Tagore, the date of partition of Bengal (October 16, 1905) was celebrated as__?
[A] Rakhi Bandhan Day
[B] Brotherhood Day
[C] Solidarity Day
[D] Black Day
Answer : [a]
40. Medieval King “Lalitaditya Muktapida” is related to which of the following regions?
[A] Bundelkhand
[B] Kashmir
[C] Sindh
[D] Gujarat
Answer : [b]
41. The Portuguese built their first fortress in India at __?
[A] Cochin
[B] Goa
[C] Anjidiv
[D] Cannanore
Answer : [a]
42. Who is the highest wicket taker in Test cricket?
[A] Shane Warne
[B] Brian Lara
[C] Courtney Walsh
[D] Muttiah Muralitharan
Answer : [d]
43. When was Orissa separated from Bihar to become a separate province?
[A] 1 January 1948
[B] 1 April 1936
[C] 28 August 1955
[D] 1 November 1958
Answer : [b]
44. The largest gulf in the world is
[A] Gulf of Mexico
[B] Persian Gulf
[C] Gulf of Carpentaria
[D] Gulf of Mannar
Answer : [a]
45. The founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj was ___?
[A] Atmaram Pandurang
[B] Gopal Hari Deshmukh
[C] M. G. Ranade
[D] Jyotiba Phule
Answer : [d]
46. Special women commando force raised by Assam government is:
[A] Virangana
[B] Nirbhaya
[C] Sribal
[D] Naribal
Answer : [a]
47. The World Environment Day is celebrated on
[A] April 7
[B] June 5
[C] August 6
[D] June 16
Answer : [b]
48. On which date, National Broadcasting day is observed?
[A] July 23
[B] June 2
[C] March 15
[D] January 19
Answer : [a]
49. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
[A] the Palghat gap
[B] the Bhorghat pass
[C] the Thalgat pass
[D] the Bolan pass
Answer : [a]
50. World Human Rights Day is observed on
[A] April 8
[B] December 10
[C] December 7
[D] September 5
Answer : [b]
Continue Reading
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